Q&A – Page 88 – Church of the Eternal God

Would you please explain Matthew 7:6? Who, especially, is Christ addressing here, and how are we to apply this Scripture in our daily lives?

August 31, 2007

Matthew 7:6 reads as follows:

“Do not give what is holy to the dogs; nor cast your pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and turn and tear you in pieces.”

We need to state, first of all, that the Bible compares the truth about the Kingdom of God with a precious pearl (Matthew 13:45-46). At the same time, “dogs” or “swine” describe debased and quarrelsome people, filled with anger and hostility toward God and His Law (Philippians 3:2; 2 Peter 2:22; Revelation 22:15).

Barnes has the following insightful comments regarding the meaning of this passage:

“Pearls… are used to denote the doctrines of the gospel. ‘Dogs’ signify people who spurn, oppose, and abuse that doctrine; people of special sourness and malignity of temper, who meet it like growling and quarrelsome curs… ‘Swine’ denote those who would trample the precepts underfoot; people of impurity of life; those who are corrupt, polluted, profane, obscene, and sensual; those who would not know the value of the gospel, and who would tread it down as swine would pearls… The meaning of this proverb, then, is, do not offer your doctrine to those violent and abusive people who would growl and curse you; nor to those especially debased and profligate who would not perceive its value, would trample it down, and would abuse you…”

Would you please explain Matthew 18:20. Is it correct, as some teach, that this verse permits members to cut themselves off from the Church of God; to stay at home; and to neglect or dispense with fellowshipping with the membership of the Church?

August 24, 2007

In Matthew 18:20, Christ said: “For where two or three are gathered together in My name, I am there in the midst of them.” It is important to note the context. Christ’s comments in verse 20 follow the description of the proper procedure for conflict resolution between brethren. At least two of our Updates address […]

Is God really omnipresent, that is, everywhere at all times? Scriptures like Genesis 3:8-11 seem to suggest the opposite!

August 17, 2007

The question of God’s omnipresence has puzzled men for centuries and millennia, and diverse and sometimes incredible answers have been proposed.

One common idea in Orthodox Christianity is that God, as a Spirit being, is everywhere, as allegedly, Spirit has no form or shape–no limitations–no “parts.” God is understood to be–even though proponents of that idea would oppose such wording–a formless or shapeless “blob”–permeating everything.

This idea is clearly unbiblical. God HAS form and shape. God said that Moses saw the glorified “form” of the LORD (compare Numbers 12:8). God, when creating man, said that man was to be made in accordance with the image and likeness of God (Genesis 1:26-27; 9:6). God is described as having a head, arms, a body, feet, eyes and hair, among other aspects. Man is made in the physical form of God–he is a physical reflection, if you please, of the Spirit Beings, God the Father and Jesus Christ the Son. Please also note that Christ is described as the [Spirit] image of God the Father (2 Corinthians 4:4). He looks like God the Father; that is why He could say, even when He was here on earth in human form; “He who has seen Me has seen the Father” (John 14:9). In that same way–on a physical level–man is made in the image of God.

Numerous Scriptures in the books of Isaiah and Ezekiel address the house of Israel with dire warnings. Do any of those prophecies apply to us today?

August 10, 2007

The astounding truth is, YES! There are a multitude of prophetic statements throughout the Word of God that very specifically speak of our day–the generation living just before the promised return of Jesus Christ! However, many who claim to be ministers, teachers or students of the Bible dismiss much of the Old Testament as irrelevant and outdated–especially when it comes to prophetic sections.

Isaiah prophesied before the FIRST national captivity of the ten tribes who bore the name, House of Israel. These ten tribes were led into captivity around 722-721 B.C. 2 Kings 17 provides details about how God removed these rebellious tribes from the land of Israel by the hand of the king of Assyria. However, Isaiah prophesied about this captivity years earlier, at the time of King Uzziah. There is a generally accepted date identified by the death of King Uzziah [Azariah] of 740 B.C., and we find that Isaiah mentions this event in association with his calling as a prophet (Compare Isaiah 6:1). Furthermore, Isaiah begins his book: “The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jothan, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah” (Isaiah 1:1). These kings reigned in Judah from approximately 792 to 686 B.C.

What is meant with the prophesied "famine of the Word," as alluded to in Amos 8:11-12?

August 3, 2007

Amos 8:11-12 reads:

“’Behold, the days are coming,’ says the Lord God, ‘That I will send a famine on the land, Not a famine of bread, Nor a thirst for water, But of HEARING the words of the LORD. They shall wander from sea to sea, And from north to east; They shall run to and fro, seeking the word of the LORD, But shall not find it.”

Some have concluded that this passage tells us that in the future, God’s Word–the gospel of the kingdom of God–will NOT be preached anymore to the world. However, that conclusion would be inconsistent with Christ’s prophecy in Matthew 24:14, which says: “And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come.”

In addition, we read that at the time just prior to Christ’s return, the Two Witnesses will preach God’s Word (compare Revelation 11:3-7), and finally, we are told that the third angel has the everlasting gospel to be preached to all nations (compare Revelation 14:6-7). Christ commissioned His Church to preach His Word and to make disciples of all nations, and He promised to be with His Church and its efforts until the end of the age (Matthew 28:18-20).

The Bible reveals that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. Why is He also referred to as a "Father" in the Old Testament? Shouldn't the term "Father" apply only to the One who is said to be Christ's Father?

July 27, 2007

It is true that the Old Testament contains references to God using the term “Father.” It is also true that, most generally, the One who dealt DIRECTLY with Israel was the same Personage who was the Son, Jesus Christ–not the One known today as “the Father.”

However, in Isaiah 9:6, we find a notable prophecy about Jesus Christ that includes several of His “names” or “designations”:

“For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.”

On the other hand, there are several other instances in which the Old Testament uses the name or designation, “Father.” In those additional instances, the reference is NOT to Christ. Please note the following comments from our free booklet, “God Is A Family“:

Who is the "angel," referred to in Exodus 23:20-23?

July 20, 2007

Exodus 23:20-23 reads, in the Authorized Version:

“Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for my name is in him. But if thou shalt indeed obey his voice, and do all that I speak; then I will be an enemy unto thine enemies, and an adversary unto thine adversaries. For mine Angel shall go before thee, and bring thee in unto the Amorites, and the Hittites, and the Perizzites, and the Canaanites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites: and I will cut them off.”

Much has been speculated as to the identity of the “Angel.” We should note, first, that these words are spoken by “the LORD” (compare Exodus 20:22). The Hebrew word for “angel” is “mal-ak” and means “messenger.” It can have reference to a human messenger, an angelic being, or God Himself, depending on the context. In Malachi 3:1, “the LORD” is referred to as the “Messenger of the covenant.” The specific reference in that passage is to Jesus Christ–not God the Father. The designation “LORD” can refer to both God the Father and Jesus Christ the Son–again, it is a matter of context. In most cases, the Hebrew word for “LORD” refers to Jesus Christ–but not always.

We understand that when we are sick, we can ask for an anointed cloth, in order to be healed. When, exactly, should we ask for a cloth, and when, exactly, does God perform the healing? Does God heal when we ask for the cloth, when the minister prepares the cloth, when he places the cloth into the mailbox, or when we receive and apply the cloth? Should we ask for a cloth for the same sickness more than once?

July 13, 2007

Let us, first of all, understand that the Bible clearly teaches that God HEALS our sicknesses and diseases. To quote from a prior Q&A:

“He tells us in Exodus 15:26, ‘If you diligently heed the voice of the LORD your God and do what is right in His sight, give ear to His commandments and keep all His statutes, I will put none of the diseases on you which I have brought on the Egyptians. For I am the LORD who heals you.’

“We are also told how healing from sickness has been made possible. We are healed by the stripes of Jesus Christ who gave His life for us, and who was tortured and beaten so that we can obtain forgiveness of our sins and healing from our sicknesses and diseases (Psalm 103:1-3; Matthew 8:16-17; 1 Peter 2:21-25; Isaiah 53:5).

What does the Bible mean when it says that we are to grow in the grace of God?

July 6, 2007

The Scriptural passage in question is found in 2 Peter 3:17-18, which reads:

“… beware lest you also fall from your own steadfastness, being led away with the error of the wicked, but grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.”

Grace has been commonly understood as unmerited pardon–especially in connection with the forgiveness of sin. God forgives us our sins, not because we deserve to be forgiven, but because of Christ’s sacrifice. However, the Greek word for “grace” conveys a much broader concept than just the “unmerited pardoning of sins.”

Notice, in this context, Paul’s warning in Romans 6:1-2, 15: “What shall we say then? Shall we continue to sin that grace may abound? Certainly not… What then? Shall we sin because we are… under grace? Certainly not!”

Exactly what does the Bible mean when it states that Christ is IN us, as, for instance, in Colossians 1:27?

June 29, 2007

In writing to the Christians living in Colosse, a city in western Turkey, Paul addressed the unique revelation that they, as converted Christians, had received the Holy Spirit—that is, that Jesus Christ was living within them through the Holy Spirit–and this fact was their assurance of the hope for eternal life.

In verses 24 and 25 of Colossians 1, Paul speaks of the Church of God by calling it the “body” of Christ. He also addresses the fact that he, Paul, had become a minister of the word of God. In this context, he continues addressing these faithful brethren:

“…the mystery which has been hidden from ages and from generations, but now has been revealed to His saints. To them God willed to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles: which is Christ IN you, the hope of glory. Him we preach, warning every man and teaching every man in all wisdom, that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus. To this end I also labor, striving according to His working which works IN me mightily” (Colossians 1:26-29).