Q&A – Page 98 – Church of the Eternal God

Would you please explain Jesus' statement in John 2:19, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up…"? Is this statement, as a direct quote of Christ, to be believed as presented to us in the English language?

July 15, 2005

Let us read the Scripture in context, by quoting John 2:18-22:

“(18) So the Jews answered and said to Him, ‘What sign do You show to us, since you do these things?’ (19) Jesus answered and said to them, ‘Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.’ (20) Then the Jews said, ‘It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?’ (21) But He was speaking of the temple of His body. (22) Therefore, when He had risen from the dead, His disciples remembered that He had said this to them; and they believed the Scripture and the word which Jesus had said.”

There is no reason to believe that the above-cited translation is incorrect. However, we must understand, in light of the other Biblical evidence, what this passage does and does not say. Some use this passage to teach that Christ rose Himself up FROM THE DEAD. They claim that Christ, the Son of God, never died, but that only His “human mantle” did. They teach that the Son of God was the second member of an immortal and unalterable Trinity, and that He therefore could not have died. They postulate that Christ–the Son of God–raised up the human mortal Jesus. This ABOMINABLE HERESY is nowhere taught in the Bible! The Bible makes very clear that God is NOT a TRINITY; that Jesus Christ was the Son of God; and that HE DIED (For more information, please read our free booklet, “Is God a Trinity?”). It was God the Father who raised the DEAD Christ FROM THE DEAD.

What did John the Baptist mean by the phrase, "baptism with fire," as mentioned in Matthew 3:11?

July 8, 2005

Notice what exactly John said in Matthew 3:11: “I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, but He who is coming after me … will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.”

As a part of his ministry, John was baptizing “with water unto repentance” (verse 11). He required that we must “bear fruits worthy of repentance” (verse 8). In comparison, Christ would be coming to also baptize, not just unto repentance, but also, with the Holy Spirit and with fire!

We, of course, are all very familiar with the first part of that statement John had made, in reference to the baptism Christ would bring. One receives the Holy Spirit after repentance, the belief in Christ’s sacrifice, and being baptized with water. In the process of baptism, prior to being submerged under water, one pronounces his or her repentance of past sins, and one’s belief in Christ’s sacrifice and one’s acceptance of Christ as his or her personal Savior. Following the actual submersion under water and being brought out of that grave of water, which event pictures the washing away of all our past sins, the ministers of God lay hands upon the person being baptized and he or she receives God’s Holy Spirit.

What is the meaning of the two loaves, mentioned in Leviticus 23 regarding the observance of Pentecost?

July 1, 2005

Here is the specific reference in question: “‘You shall bring from your dwellings two wave loaves of two-tenths of an ephah. They shall be of fine flour; they shall be baked with leaven. They are the firstfruits to the LORD'” (Leviticus 23:17). The vital key found in this Scripture that will lead to understanding what (or more specifically, who) is being represented by these two loaves appears in the last sentence: “‘They are the FIRSTFRUITS to the LORD.'”

As God introduced the observance of this Feast Day to the children of Israel, we note that several different names were used in explanation: “‘…the Feast of Harvest, the firstfruits of your labors which you have sown in the field'” (Exodus 23:16); “‘And You shall observe the Feast of Weeks, of the firstfruits of wheat harvests…'” (Exodus 34:22); “‘Also on the day of the firstfruits, when you bring a new grain offering to the LORD at your Feast of Weeks…'” (Numbers 28:26). (Compare, also, Deuteronomy 16:9-12.)

Please explain Revelation 22:15

June 24, 2005

It is important that we understand the time setting of Revelation 22:15. Before discussing the passage in detail, we need to realize that it describes a time AFTER the heavenly Jerusalem has descended to earth. We read earlier, in Revelation 21:1-2: “Now I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away. Also there was no more sea. Then I, John, saw the holy city, New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.” Verse 10 continues to explain that “the great city, the holy Jerusalem, [was] descending out of heaven from God.” Verse 27 continues that “there shall by no means enter it anything that defiles, or causes an abomination or a lie, but only those who are written in the Lamb’s Book of Life.”

What does Paul mean in Philippians 1:21 when he says, "For to me, to live is Christ"?

June 17, 2005

Let us notice the entire passage in Philippians 1:19-24: “(19) For I know that this will turn out for my deliverance through your prayer and the supply of the Spirit of Jesus Christ, (20) according to my earnest expectation and hope that in nothing I shall be ashamed, but with all boldness, as always, so now also Christ will be magnified in my body, whether by life or by death. (21) For to me, to live [is] Christ, and to die [is] gain… (23) For I am hard pressed between the two, having a desire to depart and be with Christ, which is far better. (24) Nevertheless to remain in the flesh is more needful for you.”

Notice that in verse 21, we placed the word “is” in brackets twice, indicating that there is no word in the Greek text, representing the English word “is,” and that the English word “is” was added twice by the translators.

Why do you teach that obedience to God's law is necessary to inherit eternal life? Didn't Paul say that all that is required is to believe in Jesus?

June 10, 2005

It is indeed correct that Paul told the Philippian jailer in Acts 16:31: “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.” And it is also true that we MUST believe in Christ, as only in His name can we find salvation (compare Acts 4:12). However, Paul did not say that belief in Christ is ALL that we must have. Rather, belief in Christ is only the starting point. Notice how the record in Acts 16 continues, in verses 32-33:

“Then they [Paul and Silas] spoke the WORD of the LORD to him and to all who were in his house. And he took them the same hour of the night and washed their stripes [The jailor responded to Paul’s teaching of the word of God by showing kindness to Paul.] And immediately he and all his family were baptized [They had repented of their sins and showed their faith by baptism, so that they could receive the gift of God’s Holy Spirit, compare Acts 2:38].”

Would you explain Revelation 20:10? Does this Scripture say that the beast and the false prophet will be tormented in hell fire forever?

June 3, 2005July 12, 2020

A superficial reading, especially in many of the modern translations, might indeed lead us to conclude the existence of a never-ending torture of the beast (a military leader) and the false prophet (a religious leader) in hell. However, analyzing the Scripture carefully, a different conclusion is warranted.

The Authorized Version (AV) translates Revelation 20:10, as follows:

“And the DEVIL that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet ARE, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.”

Please note that the subject of the sentence is the devil. It is he who will be tormented in the lake of fire. In regard to the beast and the false prophet, please note that the word, “are” is in italics, in the AV. This means, there is no verb in the Greek language, so that the translators had to ADD a verb — they ADDED the English word “are,” based on how they understood the meaning of the sentence. However, the addition of the word “are” is clearly WRONG in this context.

Would you please explain Revelation 14:11? Does this Scripture teach that the wicked will be forever tormented in hell fire?

May 27, 2005

Let us consider Revelation 14:11 in context with the previous two verses. The entire passage reads:

“Then a third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, ‘If anyone worships the beast [an end-time political leader, as well as the political system that he represents] and his image [an end-time religious system, as well as a religious leader representing that system]. and receives his mark on his forehead or on his head [permitting or preventing him to buy and sell, Revelation 13:16-17], he himself shall also drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out full strength into the cup of His indignation. He shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels and in the presence of the Lamb [Jesus Christ]. And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever; and they have no rest day or night, who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name.”

Do the wicked go to hell?

May 20, 2005July 20, 2025

The concept that the wicked go to an ever-burning hell after their death is nowhere taught in Scripture. In fact, the Bible does not even teach the existence of an ever-burning hell, torturing wicked souls of departed ones for their evil deeds.

The concept of an ever-burning hellfire is derived from paganism. Richard Craze explains in his book, “Hell, An Illustrated History of the Netherworld,” copyrighted 1996:

“… the old horned gods of the Stone Age people became the new rulers of hell. There was a sort of logic in locating the place of the dead below ground — the underworld — because that was exactly where the dead were buried… The early [nominal] Christians borrowed Hel’s name [the goddess Hel ruled over the place of the “lost souls” in Viking mythology] for their own place of punishment… The early [nominal] Christians borrowed heavily from earlier mythologies, and the generally accepted appearance of Satan is an amalgamation of such things as the horns and shaggy hindquarters of the Greek god Pan, the wings of the Mesopotamian devil Pazuzu, and the scales and dragon skin of the Persian Azhidaahaka… The Greeks borrowed freely from the Babylonians… Pluto, Zeus’ brother, governed [hell] with a merciless severity and subjected his poor guests to the most ingenious tortures… [Others] were consigned to the deep bottomless pit… ruled by Kronos. Here they would suffer eternal torment… sinners were tortured for eternity… The Romans knew exactly where hell was located — underneath Italy. Everything else they borrowed from the Greeks.”

What did Christ mean when He said that He had come to FULFILL the law? Doesn't this imply that He did away with the law?

May 13, 2005

Christ’s statement that He came to FULFILL the law does NOT mean that He did away with it — quite the CONTRARY is correct.

Notice what Christ said in Matthew 5:17: “Do NOT think that I came to DESTROY the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy BUT to fulfill.” Christ did not say here that He had come to destroy the law. Neither did He say that “fulfilling” the law meant, “destroying it,” because if that were true, Christ’s statement would read: “I did not come to destroy the law but to destroy the law.” This would make no sense.

In the Greek, the word for “fulfill” is “pleroo.” It is true that this word can designate completion or even cessation — but as will be pointed out, it can also mean a continued activity of carrying out something — depending on the context. For instance, in Luke 7:1, the word “pleroo” is used in the sense of “end” or “conclude”: “Now when He concluded all His sayings…” In Acts 19:21, the Greek word is translated as “accomplished” : “When these things were accomplished…” (The Authorized Version says “ended” in both passages.)