Q: Would you please explain Zechariah 13:3?

The passage in question refers to the time of the Millennium, after Christ's return, when the Kingdom of God will be established here on earth.

Zechariah 13:2-3 reads:

"'(Verse 2) It shall be in that day,' says the LORD of hosts, 'that I will cut off the names of the idols from the land, and they shall no longer be remembered. I will also cause the prophets and the unclean spirit to depart from the land. (Verse 3) It shall come to pass that if anyone still prophesies, then his father and mother who begot him will say to him,"'You shall not live, because you have spoken lies in the name of the LORD." And his father and mother who begot him shall thrust him through when he prophesies...'"

Q: Would you please explain Matthew 24:20?

In Matthew 24, containing the famous "Olivet prophecy," Jesus Christ explained the "sign of His coming and the end of the age" (verse 3). After discussing the "beginning of sorrows" (verse 8), He pointed at the worldwide preaching of the gospel (verse 14), followed by the Great Tribulation (beginning with verse 15). In that context, Jesus said, in verses 19-22:

Q: Would you please explain Revelation 12:17?

Reading Revelation 12:17 in context, it shows that in the future, just prior to Christ's return, some in God's Church will be protected from the Great Tribulation and Satan's wrath, while other Christians will have to go through that terrible time of martyrdom.

Revelation 12:17 reads: "And the dragon [Satan the devil] was enraged with the woman [the Church of God], and he went to make war with the rest of her offspring, who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Jesus Christ."

We begin our discussion of this passage by quoting from chapter 13 of our free booklet, "Is That in the Bible?--The Mysteries of the Book of Revelation":

Q: Why does the Church of God keep the annual Passover one day earlier than the Jews?

It is indeed correct that the Church of God keeps the Passover one day earlier than the Jews do today. The reason is that based on the Bible, the Jews keep the Passover one day too late.

This year, the Church of God keeps the annual Passover on Sunday evening, March 28, after sunset. However, the Jews keep the Passover, beginning on Monday evening, March 29, after sunset. As we said, they keep it one day too late. They keep the Passover when the Bible commands to keep the "Night to Be Much Observed"--two totally different and separate occasions.

Please notice our comments in our free booklet, "The Meaning of God's Spring Holy Days":

Q: In reading some comments by the Apostle Paul in the book of Romans, it appears that Paul might not have understood that most Israelites who are not called to salvation in this day and age will be called in the Second Resurrection and will then be given their opportunity to inherit eternal life. Is this impression of Paul's lack of understanding correct?

It is not. Paul clearly understood and taught that there is a Second Resurrection for all those who were never called to salvation in this life. This will include the multitude of the past and present houses of Israel and Judah, as well as the multitude of non-Israelite nations--the "Gentiles." Paul knew that today, only very few --the "firstfruits" (compare Romans 8:23)--will be called to salvation and the pre-millennial First Resurrection to eternal life. Paul knew that the Second Resurrection will not be to eternal life, but to a physical temporary existence, but with the potential to qualify for eternal life.

Q: Would you please explain what Paul meant in 1 Corinthians 5:5, saying that a sinner in the Church should be delivered to Satan for the destruction of the flesh?

Although the correct answer can be easily ascertained from the Scriptures, many commentaries are actually confused regarding the meaning of this passage. Paul said, in context, in 1 Corinthians 5:1-5:

Q: What was the exact hour of Christ's crucifixion (compare Mark 15:33-37)?

At first glance, it might appear that the accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John gave inconsistent times pertaining to Christ's crucifixion. However, this is not the case. Apparent inconsistencies are explained when we realize that Matthew, Mark and Luke used the Jewish reckoning of time, while John gave the Roman reckoning.

(1) According to the JEWISH reckoning, a day of 24 hours duration begins at sunset and ends at sunset, and the (approximate) twelve hours of the daylight portion BEGIN WITH SUNRISE, while the (approximate) twelve hours of the night portion BEGIN WITH SUNSET.

Q: Please explain what Jesus meant in His statement found in Luke 16:16—especially, regarding the Kingdom of God, when He said, “‘…and everyone is pressing into it.’”

In the context of this verse, the account shows that Jesus was reacting to the rejection of His teaching by the Pharisees (compare verse 14). In Luke 16:13, Jesus concluded a parable with this admonition, “‘…You cannot serve God and mammon’”—a statement that challenged the Pharisaical practices!

Continuing in Luke 16:15-16:

“And He said to them, ‘You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts. For what is highly esteemed among men is an abomination in the sight of God.

“‘The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it.’”

Q: What is meant in John 1:14 that Jesus was "full of grace?"

John 1:14 says that ".. the Word [the "Logos," that is, Jesus Christ the Spokesman] became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory... full of grace and truth."

The Greek word "charis," which is commonly translated as "grace," has a variety of meanings. It can and very often does refer to God's forgiveness of our sins--His "unmerited pardon"--and to our justification. We read in Romans 3:24 that we are "being justified freely by His grace" (compare also Titus 3:7).

Q: I was reading in Matthew tonight and came across Matthew 11:12: "‘And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffers violence, and the violent take it by force.’" Can you shed any light on what this means?

As a beginning point in answering your question, first consider these comments from the NASB Study Bible regarding “suffers violence,” as translated in Matthew 11:12: "The Greek here is taken in a passive sense. In this context its passive meaning is, ‘suffers violent attacks.’ The verse emphasizes the ongoing persecution of the people of the kingdom.”

The statement by Jesus in Matthew 11:12 reflects the violence of persecution against representatives of the Kingdom of God. Specifically, those in the forefront of proclaiming the future establishment of God’s Kingdom on the earth are targets of mortal violence.